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How could Egypt be punished for enslaving the Jews when God decreed in the Bris Bein HaBesarim that it must happen? God programmed Egypt with political necessity to enslave Jews but never programmed them to WANT to be slave masters. The ten plagues tested whether Egypt enslaved reluctantly or enjoyed their power — and their repeated refusal to release the Jews revealed they chose to be enthusiastic oppressors.
Rav Zweig addresses several perplexing questions about the beginning of Parshas Bo. Why does the Torah (תורה) give a new introduction before the eighth plague (Arbeh) when it already explained the purpose of the plagues earlier? Why does the Torah say "Bo el Pharaoh ki ani hichbadti es libo" - "Come to Pharaoh because I have hardened his heart" - which seems like a reason NOT to go to Pharaoh? And how do we understand the Rambam (רמב"ם)'s statement that Pharaoh lost his free will after the seventh plague, yet he still sent out the Jews after the tenth plague? The fundamental philosophical question underlying these issues is how Egypt could be punished for enslaving the Jews when God had decreed in the Bris Bein HaBesarim that the Jewish people would be enslaved for 400 years. If God decreed it must happen, how can the Egyptians be held responsible? The Rambam answers that God didn't decree which specific nation would enslave the Jews, leaving each nation with free choice. The Ramban (רמב"ן) disagrees, arguing that if it must happen, someone must do it, so why punish those who fulfill the decree? The Ramban suggests they were only punished for doing more than required.
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Why does the Torah seem to describe two separate exoduses from Egypt? The shiur distinguishes between pidyon (removing external oppression) and geulah (returning to one's true source). Parshas Bo represents pidyon from slavery, while Parshas Beshalach represents geulah - Hashem taking Klal Yisrael as His special army with cosmic responsibilities.
Why does the Midrash connect Pharaoh's expulsion of the Jews to the mitzvah of shiluach hakan? The shiur develops a chiddush that Pharaoh's sin wasn't only drowning the children, but the insensitivity of expelling the parents afterward. The deeper analysis reveals that Pharaoh may have valued the Jews greatly and wanted to control them—making his expulsion an act of tremendous cruelty, not liberation.
Why does Moshe respond to the splitting of the sea with shirah rather than praise or thanksgiving? Rashi's use of "al libo" reveals that shirah is an emotional expression—a response of love to love. When Hashem shows personal care, the only adequate response is "I love You too," not mere gratitude or praise, and this principle applies to all relationships.
Parshas Bo
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Why was Kriyas Yam Suf necessary if Klal Yisroel was already freed from Egypt after Makas Bechoros? The shiur distinguishes between pidyon (extraction from danger) achieved in Parshas Bo and geulah (entering the redeemer's domain) accomplished at the sea. Kriyas Yam Suf wasn't about stopping injustice but about Hashem taking vengeance on behalf of His people, demonstrating they are 'bito shel melech.'
