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Why does the Torah (תורה) phrase the prohibition against idolatry in ways that seem to acknowledge other gods exist? The shiur contrasts Rashi (רש"י)'s linguistic solution (gods "others made") with Onkelos's theological insight: when Yisro recognizes God is "greater than all the gods," he means there are no other gods at all—even Egypt's enemies belong to the one God. This explains why God's punishment was a "measured response."
The shiur opens with Rashi (רש"י)'s interpretation of "Lo yihiye lecha elohim acheirim" (You shall not have other gods). Rashi explains that the phrase doesn't mean "other gods" but rather "gods that others made into gods"—elohim she'aso acheirim. Rashi's concern is that interpreting it as "other gods" would be lashon genai klapi mileil—disrespectful language toward God—since it would imply that other gods actually exist alongside Him. Rabbi Zweig then introduces a puzzling inconsistency in Onkelos's translation. When Yisro declares "ata yodati ki gadol Hashem (ה׳) mikol elohim" (now I know that God is greater than all the gods), Onkelos translates it as "now I know there is no God other than Him"—seemingly addressing the same concern Rashi had about implying other gods exist. Yet in the Aseres HaDibros (Ten Commandments) itself, Onkelos translates "Lo yihiye lecha elohim acher" literally as "other gods," without any such modification. If Onkelos were concerned about the linguistic implication everywhere, he should have been consistent. Why does he translate Yisro's statement so differently?
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Parshas Yisro, Shemos 20:3 (Aseres HaDibros), Shemos 18:11 (Yisro's declaration)
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