No community start suggestion yet.
Why does the Torah (תורה) use feminine language for the prohibition against witchcraft (mechashefa lo s'chayeh)? The shiur develops the thesis that kishuf (witchcraft) represents an intrinsic connection to death and separation from God. Since women have a deeper metaphysical connection to death through their biology and spiritual role, they dominate this realm—making them the "active party" the Torah addresses directly.
This shiur explores Parshas Mishpatim's prohibition against witchcraft, beginning with several textual anomalies. The Torah (תורה) writes "mechashefa lo s'chayeh" (a sorceress shall not live) in the feminine, though most prohibitions are phrased in masculine language. Rashi (רש"י) explains that while both men and women can practice kishuf, the Torah uses feminine language because dibra Torah k'chaveh—women are more frequently involved in witchcraft. This raises fundamental questions: Why are women more prone to kishuf? Why does the Torah need to tell us this by changing its usual linguistic pattern? And why does the Torah phrase the prohibition as "shall not live" rather than the more common "shall be put to death"? The Gemara (גמרא) in Sanhedrin derives that the punishment for kishuf is skilah (stoning) through a gezeirah shavah from the phrase "lo yichyeh" used at Har Sinai regarding the prohibition of crossing the boundary (hagbalah). This connection itself demands explanation: what links witchcraft to the boundary violation at Sinai? Furthermore, the adjacent verse about bestiality uses masculine language but actually refers to a woman with an animal—creating a parallel linguistic inversion.
Looking for the full summary?
Full access is available to members of the TUF Alumni Association or the Yam Hagadol Foundation.
Already a member? Let the admin know!
Dedicate a Shiur in Parsha
L'ilui nishmas a loved one. In honor of a simcha or yahrzeit. As a zechus for a refuah sheleimah. Your dedication helps carry Rabbi Zweig's Torah to learners around the world.
Why does the Midrash connect Pharaoh's expulsion of the Jews to the mitzvah of shiluach hakan? The shiur develops a chiddush that Pharaoh's sin wasn't only drowning the children, but the insensitivity of expelling the parents afterward. The deeper analysis reveals that Pharaoh may have valued the Jews greatly and wanted to control them—making his expulsion an act of tremendous cruelty, not liberation.
Why does Moshe respond to the splitting of the sea with shirah rather than praise or thanksgiving? Rashi's use of "al libo" reveals that shirah is an emotional expression—a response of love to love. When Hashem shows personal care, the only adequate response is "I love You too," not mere gratitude or praise, and this principle applies to all relationships.
Mishpatim 22:17-18
Looking for the full transcript?
Full access is available to members of the TUF Alumni Association or the Yam Hagadol Foundation.
Already a member? Let the admin know!
