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Why do we learn the halachos of shofar on Rosh Hashanah from Yovel, yet the Gemara (גמרא) seems to reverse direction and derive Yovel's laws from Rosh Hashanah? The shiur develops a yesod that every Rosh Hashanah contains two distinct dinim: one as Yom HaDin and one as a unit of the Yovel cycle, which is itself an expression of malchus Shamayim. This explains why the term "Rosh Hashanah" in Tanach refers specifically to Yovel, and resolves the Ran's difficulty with the Rambam (רמב"ם)'s position on keren hakevesh.
The shiur addresses a fundamental difficulty in the Gemara (גמרא)'s discussion of the gezeirah shavah between Rosh Hashanah and Yovel. The Gemara on daf 26b explains that just as Yovel is similar to Rosh Hashanah, we apply certain halachos of tekias shofar from one to the other through the gezeirah shavah of "shvi'i shvi'i." However, Rashi (רש"י) comments that even though the entire inyan of shmitas mechiras sados (release of sold fields) has nothing to do with tefillah or zikaron but rather with shiluach avadim (freeing of slaves), nevertheless we learn the requirement of peshutim (straight shofaros) through this gezeirah shavah. The fundamental difficulty is that the Gemara on 33a appears to derive ALL the core halachos of shofar on Rosh Hashanah FROM Yovel, not the other way around. The requirement to use a shofar, the requirement of tekiah-teruah-tekiah before and after the teruah—all of these are learned from the pesukim in Yovel and then applied to Rosh Hashanah through the gezeirah shavah. If all the halachos flow FROM Yovel TO Rosh Hashanah, how can we turn around and derive requirements BACK to Yovel from Rosh Hashanah? The ta'am of peshutim is based on tefillah, which is uniquely relevant to Rosh Hashanah as a day of judgment. Yovel has no such dimension—it is purely about shiluach avadim and hachrazah (proclamation). So by what logic would we impose Rosh Hashanah's tefillah-based requirements onto Yovel?
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Rosh Hashanah 26b
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